My gilrfirend has told me that she has Chlamydia, we have been together for three months is it possible that she could of had chlamdia from her previous partner and not have suffered the effects until some four months later? the thing is i get tested on a regular basis and was test not two weeks before we got together and was given the all clear. she is insists that she has not slept with anyone apart from me before she moved out to spain (where we live) but i am not convinced, from what i have read if you have chlamydia the symptons will be apparent with two - three weeks?? is this correct or am i being paroniod?
sorry to waste your time but i really need to know.
Many thanks